The adjacent "government" land is not used for anything, and therefore it deprives no one for Bundy to graze his cattle there.
How is the fact that the legitimate property owner may or may not use the land relevant to whether somebody else has a right to use it rent-free?
If, for example, I own a vacant lot and don't choose to do anything with it, can my neighbor go in and put a house on it or farm it? I don't think so.
