I will try to explain it for the reading comprehension impaired. There was a regulation enacted under Bush that allowed oil companies to request an exemption. Not a requirement for exemption, but a request could be made. The Obama administration granted an exemption as requested by BP whom he is the largest receiver of campaign funds. This same administration retroactively revoked mountaintop mining exemptions given by the Bush administration under that same regulatory loophole.
Why would Obama grant this exemption? Saying he was following a regulation that Bush signed seems self serving does it not? If he would retroactively revoke exemptions on mountaintop mines, but actively issue a exemption for a oil rig what could be the reason?
The mines that were revoked were non-union mines, the oil rig was owned by a company that contributed more money to Obama than any other candidate.
Try not being partisan for a moment and let logic be your guide.
